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Hi,
I am working on Leave policies for my organisation, and in the Maternity Leaves we have included a constraint that says the concerned female employee must have served us for a minimum period of 2 years only then she is eligible to opt for the Marital leaves.
Is it ok to put such constrain or is it not legally right?

From India, Noida
It is legally not right, please refer the MB Act and accordingly draft the Leave Policy if required so
From India, Ahmadabad
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