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Two batsmen batting in 94 not out. The team needs 7 runs to win. Only 3 balls left. Both batsmen remain unbeaten on 100. How is it possible?

From India, Pune
ball 1. 1st bt'man - got six and reached 100
ball 2. 1st bt'man- trying for six but he lost the wicket by a catch but both the batsman corssed each other ( no runs , still need 1 run to win, but 2nd batman on strike with 94)
ball 3. 2nd bt'man got six and reached 100- won the match too
Hope this would be the ans ...........
Regds
Shin

From India, Madras
2 possibilities:
First one
1st batsman hits the ball and runs for 3 runs, but one run is short run. Fielder throws the ball and is overthhrown for 4 runs - actual runs scored = 6 becoz of 1 short run.
But now the 2nd batsman is on crease and he hits a six at the next ball...
Both batsmen at 100, not beaten
Second Scenario
It starts raining at 46.5 overs and the game is stopped for some time. According to Duckworth Lewis rule, they have to score 7 runs off 3 balls to overcome the lost time.
the first batsman hits a 6 and reaches hundred. At the start of new over, 2nd batsman is at the crease and hits a six, making it a century for him.
Both the batsmen remain unbeaten on 100. :)

From India, New Delhi
Mahesh,
Hi.
I believe there are many possiblities and ways to solve it..
A. one six and other balls just played without getting any run, thus making 94+6+0+0 = 100
B .2nd Solution -score of 3 balls as under
4 - 2 - 0
C.3rd Solution-score of remaining 3 balls as : 4 - 1 -1

Supriya's answer is apt too.

these are the possible answers that i could think of. I stand to be corrected! Well ,what's the answer???

From India, Vadodara
hi Shalu... u did not read the question properly i guess.... BOTH the batsman raech 100 UNBEATEN... so ur answers are not correct... but well tried... :)
From India, New Delhi
yeah of course Shalu... trying is more important than anything else.... u tried well..... :)
From India, New Delhi
Mahesh,
Hi.
I believe there are many possiblities and ways to solve it..
As three balls are remaining :
Ball 1 = 4 runs
Ball 2 = Wide ball + 2 runs

Bats man 1 =100 runs

Ball 2 = bys bats man cross 1 run to team.

Ball 3 = Bats 2 hits Six
Hope its correct.
:neutral:
Supriya's answer is apt too right.

From India, Thana
Dear Mahesh,

Really a great one infact which i had got through SMS long back, but i just left it unanswered. Today it was not the same for me from the time i saw the question i was trying to find out the solution for this well here is my reply,

1st Ball --- 1st Batsman hits the ball for SIX and completes his 100
2nd Ball --- 1st Batsman hits the and runs for a short quick single but after crossing over he collides with the feilder gets injured and gets retired hurt. Here the feilding side will not appeal as it was a case of injury to the batsman (Hope you all remember the recent thing related to this happened in England VS New Zealand match) so new batsman comes to the middle.
3rd Ball --- 2nd Batsman hits the ball for SIX to complete his 100 and also the Match.

This is one such possibilty that i thought, in case of any other things that can happen i will post that also. Hope this will not be a shortened match as mentioned by Supriya. Let me know about my reply.........

Regards
Amith R.

From India, Bangalore
well according to me--
1st Batsman hits a 4 on a "No Ball" which is equal to 5 runs and in next ball take a single run. Now for last ball 2nd batsman comes on crease to bat and he hits a Six.
Match won by them... both batsman on 100 UNBEATEN....
Mahesh, waiting for your reply....

From India, Gurgaon
Dear Chandrakanth,
Great try but one thing i want to make out here is, when you have put it as Ball 2 is a wide ball than i guess those runs will not be counted to the Batsman and more importantly if you consider it as No Ball also than total runs scored will become more than 7 which is the actual number of runs wanted for the team to win. Hope you agree with it.............
Regards
Amith R.

From India, Bangalore
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